Talk:1951 Spanish Grand Prix

Gonzalez title chance?
Gonzalez had 21 points before the race, with a win with fastest lap he could have equaled Fangio's 27 points. Why was he not a title contender? What counted in case of a tie in 1951? According to current rules, he would have been champion with more 3rd places (1-0) if shared places count 1, or with more victories (2-1,5) if shared places count 0,5. 193.6.53.135 (talk) 13:04, 30 October 2017 (UTC)
 * I believe you are correct and that González was still in title contention, a view which is supported by this source. Unless conclusive evidence that González was not in title contention comes to light, I believe we should update this article and 1951 Italian Grand Prix accordingly. Note that I don't consider sources not mentioning González as a title contender as conclusive evidence that he wasn't; I'd be looking for a definitive statement that he wasn't, or some applicable rule. DH85868993 (talk) 21:59, 30 October 2017 (UTC)
 * I'm the anon who posted this question. It looks like there is only one possible way in which Gonzalez was not in title contention, that the driver who scored his points earlier got the better championship position. I also checked the official F1 site and, in earlier seasons, they did not give different ranks to drivers with the same points, not even to Richie Ginther and Graham Hill in 1963, the earliest occasion of two drivers having the same championship points, but different total points. This implies that in 1951, a tie was a tie, and both Fangio and Gonzalez would have been champion. By the way, Fangio had 28 points in total before the race, and Gonzalez could have had 30 after the race. Again, Gonzalez was in title contention in this case. Makaroni96 (talk) 12:40, 4 November 2017 (UTC)
 * I have updated this article and 1951 Italian Grand Prix. DH85868993 (talk) 11:10, 6 November 2017 (UTC)