Talk:DC Fair and Equal House Voting Rights Act of 2006

Wouldn't this require a constitutional amendment ? —The preceding unsigned comment was added by Raphfrk (talk • contribs).
 * Excellent question. Article I section 8 clause 17 permits Congress "[t]o exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District."  It seems that it could do so by granting it a legislator.  But the sticky part is that Article I section 2 permits only representatives from a "State." ("The House of Representatives shall be composed of Members chosen every second Year by the People of the several States," "No Person shall be a Representative . . . who shall not, when elected, be an Inhabitant of that State in which he shall be chosen.")  If there are legal discussions of this, it would be appropriate to include them on the main page. Zz414 22:05, 20 December 2006 (UTC)