Talk:EasyDNS

Canadian-based or Canada-based?

 * This discussion was moved here from Reference desk.

In EasyDNS, User:Largoplazo insists on changing "Canadian-based" to "Canada-based". The latter is ungrammatical and I've pointed out a source on grammar that with nations (as opposed to cities or regions) one uses the adjectival form: "some people get it wrong with nations and use the noun form when they should be using the adjectival form, so say things – incorrectly – like "Britain-based company". It should be British-based company, Swiss-based company, French-based company (not Britain-based, Switzerland-based, France-based etc). Yes, the companies are based in Britain (not "British") because it is "based in + noun". Move the noun in front of another noun to describe it then it becomes an adjective." Largo has countered with his own original research and personal reasoning (see User_talk:Largoplazo) and has reverted my correction of him based on his own personal views of how grammar should be. I've asked him to back up his views with sources but he has failed to do so. Horatio Bumblebee (talk) 22:38, 5 August 2015 (UTC)
 * Yes, as I explained, you noted a source that claims it, and then falls completely apart by attempting to justify it—with a set of analogies all of which fall apart in the manner in which I explained. Since the source's elaboration was thoroughly nonsensical, I am dismissing it as an unreliable source. It seems that my refusal to accept as authoritative the word of a writer whose reputation as an authority is unknown to me and who clearly indulges in fallacious reasoning is what you are calling original research.
 * The burden of providing sources, as I also noted to you, falls on the person who makes the unusual claim, the one who asserts an exception to the usual pattern. The usual pattern is that "an X [verb]ed [preposition] Y" corresponds to the rearranged construction "a Y-[verb]ed X". You are claiming an exception, the application of which is restricted in two ways: when the verb is "base" and when X is, not just any geopolitical entity, but, very specifically, countries, in opposition to the treatment of states, provinces, cities, continents, islands, etc. Then, suddenly, the counterpart to "an X [verb]ed [preposition] Y" is "a Y-ian-[verb]ed X". Seriously, the burden to convince that this exception is either obvious or generally prescribed is on you. If you can't back up that claim appropriately, then you are the one presenting original research. —Largo Plazo (talk) 00:17, 6 August 2015 (UTC)


 * This is the Wikipedia Reference Desk. Is either of you asking for a reliable source that would support your position?  Because you haven't actually said so.  If you want to just have a discussion where you hope to persuade the other, either your own talk pages or those of the relevant articles would be the places.  --   Jack of Oz   [pleasantries]  01:41, 6 August 2015 (UTC)
 * I don't know. This is the fourth place he's posted his inquiry so far, and he moved it here with my response after I had answered him at the last location. (I don't mean to say he's forum shopping: he isn't copying it to all those places, he just keeps deleting it from one place and moving it to another.) —Largo Plazo (talk) 02:01, 6 August 2015 (UTC)


 * I didn't post it here, someone moved it. I'll repost it to the grammar desk as a question. Horatio Bumblebee (talk) 04:24, 6 August 2015 (UTC)

The above discussion is taking place at WP:Reference desk/Language, from which it was diverted momentarily here, rather than here. —Largo Plazo (talk) 14:08, 6 August 2015 (UTC)