Talk:Ecclesia

Ekklessia the "called out"
The "called out" I suggest removal of the "gathering of the called out ones" part. This is a root fallacy and will be removed if no one responds in two days Cloud Stryfe 00:42, 27 September 2006 (UTC)

The Called assembly of the Citizens. If they were called and they gathered, then wouldn't it suffice that it was a gathering of the called ones? —Preceding unsigned comment added by BroGinder (talk • contribs) 04:26, 13 September 2007 (UTC)

This seems to be removed without discussion (Declaring a three day discussion on a little used article in Wikipedia is just making it up). The disagreement was without proof, simply someone's pet peeve or religious doctrine?, and was removed apparently even *with disagreement* and without even the self created "three day rule", with the discussion under NO TITLE, making it even less likely anyone would read it in **three days**. I've put an appropriate title to this in the talk section.

The point of fact, there are numerous Greek dictionaries, concordances and lexicons with exactly that - substantially - derivation. I can source many without even trying - and in fact just did for myself a few minutes ago.

The article is little helped without even the Greek parts it's composed. Although I'm aware there are often differences among scholars in how those are composed, that is just a reason to compare everyone's derivation - with sources, that exist. A common derivation is from ek, "out from" and kaléō, "to call") or the "called out" in this form according to those scholars. In fact, this is the overwhelming one, and I can't find an exception.  But if there are alternatives - it should just be added to the article -- with sources - instead of removing the widely used derivation - because someone said so without sourcing it.

One thing I do disagree with is the Greek does not say assembly, congregation, or the like - and it certainly doesn't mean what the English word "church" means - which I highly suspect was someone's pet peeve, religiously based. Historically, people have added "congregation" "assembly", etc to it, seeing the problem, but even that is more then the words actually say - although it certainly has been used in connection with assemblies both religious and secular. However, in Koine Greek, it is also used not to mean that - but *just* "called out". An example of this Acts 19:32. The ekklesia there was not a congregation, organized assembly or meeting, they were just a mob of people that had been "called out". In Acts 19:39, this assembly was called "unlawful", apparently under that city's pagan rules, meaning it wasn't organized, and dismissed. But the people were still called "called out".

I invite discussion and disagreement, and alternate origins of the word - with sources. The article really *must* have have the underling actual meaning with sources from Greek - and any alternates, or it is lacking in basic substance. The sources should be added to the article, and improved.

mission focused use in Christianity
I suggest the removal of "scripture-based, mission-focused" in describing the Texan church. Both are subjective terms. Their use here implies that they have only one possible meaning. But both are open to vague interpretations. Most churches claim to be based on some form of scriptures, and to be focused on some mission. It is the nature of a church. The use to these terms here is unnecessary. —Preceding unsigned comment added by Dfault312 (talk • contribs) 21:55, 4 April 2008 (UTC)

Greek and Latin uses
Why does the article open with "This is the nominative singular form of the Latin noun"? 1. This is confusing as the article clearly specifies that ἐκκλησία is from Greek in the previous sentence. 2. The Greek ἐκκλησία predates the Latin usage. 3. The Greek ἐκκλησία is far more commonly referenced than the Latin. When people use the word ecclesia in English, it is almost always a reference to its use in the New Testament to describe the churches, and almost all other references get their root from this Greek usage. To describe it as a form of the Latin noun is misleading and confusing. The Latin comes from the Greek, not vice versa, and the primary modern usage derives from Greek usages, not the Latin ones. Can someone give an argument why it shouldn't read "This is the nominative singular form of the Greek noun"? Chimon (talk) 08:29, 23 June 2013 (UTC)