Talk:Francis Hay, 9th Earl of Erroll

Treasonous correspondence?
Is "treasonous" in the following sentence "In 1589, he began engaging in treasonous correspondence with King Philip II of Spain, who was also briefly King of England by his marriage to Queen Mary" really a neutral point of view?


 * The Queen was a bastard, with no legimitate right to the throne, according to Catholics.
 * The rightful King was Philip II, according to the same point of view.
 * Even if one reject the above two propositions, Errol was not a subject of the Queen of England, so how can it be treason?

Creuzbourg (talk) 19:23, 26 October 2020 (UTC)