Talk:Helly's selection theorem

Why tempered distribution?
In the first paragraph of "Statement of the Theorem", the article says: "where the derivative is taken in the sense of tempered distributions" Shouldn't this be replaced by "(...) sense of distributions."? In which way is it meaningful to speak about temperedness on proper subsets of the real line? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 176.198.117.203 (talk) 08:22, 26 June 2016 (UTC)

Why indeed?
Helly certainly did not know what a tempered distribution is, but neither seems the author of the article. It is a fact that the distributional derivative of a function of one variable and locally bounded variation is a one-dimensional Radon measure, and conversely, something most graduate students will not know. But the derivative is in general not locally integrable, because most measures are not absolutely continuous with respect to Lebesgue measure. Thus the statement needs to be modified not just because it introduces unnecessary complications; it is not Helly's theorem.

Christer Bennewitz — Preceding unsigned comment added by 90.230.64.216 (talk) 17:29, 21 August 2017 (UTC)

proper reference
It would be nice if the main result would have a proper reference. I did not find the result as stated, which is for functions that are *locally* of bounded total variation, in the book that is in the reference presently given.Petrusgr (talk) 07:28, 14 October 2019 (UTC)