Talk:Illusory superiority/Archives/2015

Driving Ability
I think the Driving ability example is specious. The problem is that the terms are so vague different people take them to mean different things. I conducted a very unscientific study in which I asked 5 people if they were below average, average or above average drivers and then I asked the "why". all five felt they were above average. One thought they were above average because they generally obeyed the speed limits and so were safer. Another felt they were above average because the kept close watch of the traffic and thus were able to get quickly and safely to where ever they needed to go while traveling well above the speed limit. He also went out of his way to say how it was the timid and slow drivers who "cause all the accidents". So both would call themselves above average and the other well below average simply because they interpret the meaning of "average" differently. Admittedly, these examples partially prove the overall point of Illusory Superiority in that both have a biased interpretation of the term which reflects them as "above average". Still, you wouldn't get the vague answers if you asked them if they were asked a less vague question. —Preceding unsigned comment added by Troyusrex (talk • contribs) 12:57, 26 June 2010 (UTC)
 * The driving ability study is mentioned frequently in the literature on this effect, so it belongs in the article. The criticism that people may interpret "above average" in different ways was anticipated: that's the point of the McCormick, Walkey and Green study mentioned in the article that got people to assess specific aspects of driving ability. MartinPoulter (talk) 15:30, 26 June 2010 (UTC)

Of course, it is quite possible for 80% of driver to be better than average. They cannot be better than the mean. The write-up here seems to suggest they were asked if they were in the top 50% (ie above the mean), but that is easily confused with better than average... 149.142.201.66 (talk) 19:54, 16 July 2015 (UTC)

Relationship Happiness
''This effect was pronounced in men, whose satisfaction was especially related to the perception that one's own relationship was superior as well as to the assumption that few others were unhappy in their relationships. On the other hand, women's satisfaction was particularly related to the assumption that most people were happy with their relationship.[24]''

I don't understand the difference between assuming that few others are unhappy and that most people are happy. I haven't read the cited study other than the abstract which is where this language is copied from. If this is meant to convey a difference in the number of relationships thought to be unhappy than it should be changed to make that clearer. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Emschorsch (talk • contribs) 06:44, 10 December 2015 (UTC)