Talk:Inverse problem for Lagrangian mechanics

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Does the Douglas theorem gives the solution of the inverse Lagrangian, or is it a existence theorem only? AlainD (talk) 11:46, 3 June 2016 (UTC) Is it possible, that (H2) is wrong? In the original paper, Douglas takes the derivative of the g_ij, not of the function f. That would also render somethings said in "Applying Douglas Theorem" false. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 188.100.108.213 (talk) 11:41, 26 February 2017 (UTC)