Talk:James 3

Question
Much of the text appears to be verbatim from. That web page seems to be marking the content as copyright, but that has to be incorrect? HOWEVER, even if the copyright has expired, would it not be correct to mark the content as coming from a single source verbatim? WP:PLAGIARISM has the following recommendation (emphasis added): "A public domain source may be summarized and cited in the same manner as for copyrighted material, but the source's text can also be copied verbatim into a Wikipedia article. If text is copied or closely paraphrased from a free source, it must be cited and attributed through the use of an appropriate attribution template, or similar annotation, which is usually placed in a "References section" near the bottom of the page (see the section "Where to place attribution" for more details)." I understand this to imply that an attribution template is needed in addition to referencing the source in the usual way, as has been done. For an example, see. I've added this, but please remove (with an explanation here) if I am misconstruing something. FeatherPluma (talk) 01:15, 23 May 2015 (UTC)