Talk:Legendre's constant

Untitled
If the best limit for A(n) is 1, then:

$$pi(n) = n / (ln (n) - 1) = n / (ln (n) - ln (e)) = n / ln (n/e)$$

so how come is it said to be non-existent? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 154.20.32.55 (talk) 22:13, 19 August 2007 (UTC)


 * It's not that $$pi(n) = n / (ln (n) - 1)$$, it's that the limit of one side divided by the other tends to 1 as n tends to infinity. 2601:600:8601:5631:69B6:4234:84B2:304C (talk) 05:27, 18 May 2016 (UTC)

Existence
Who proved the existence of the constant? Isheden (talk) 16:25, 3 December 2013 (UTC)


 * The existence of the constant is, I believe, equivalent to the PNT. 2601:600:8601:5631:69B6:4234:84B2:304C (talk) 05:26, 18 May 2016 (UTC)

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PANAITOPOL proof
https://files.ele-math.com/abstracts/mia-02-29-abs.pdf 146.12.224.120 (talk) 11:14, 18 April 2024 (UTC)