Talk:Omnigeneity

Confusing sentence in lead
"Because an exactly omnigenous reactor has no neoclassical transport (in the collisionless limit),[3] stellarators are usually designed in a way such that this criterion is met." But the previous sentence says that stellarators are usually NOT omnigeneous. Are stellarators designed so that they have no neoclassical transport despite that? The two sentences together are hard to parse, and I'm not familiar enough with this corner of physics to be sure I know the answer. User:R.J.J.Mackenbach would you care to weigh in? PianoDan (talk) 14:44, 17 June 2022 (UTC)


 * Hi, good catch. I meant to say that a generic stellarator (that is some random stellarator which is not optimized) does nt have this property. Stellarators nowadays are optimized for this criterion, and hence modern stellarators do come close to being omnigenous. Thanks for comment. R.J.J.Mackenbach (talk) 17:03, 17 June 2022 (UTC)
 * That makes a lot more sense. Thanks! PianoDan (talk) 17:13, 17 June 2022 (UTC)