Talk:Samarkand manuscript

Neutrality?
I highly doubt the neutrality of the Samarkand_manuscript article. There have been two significant claims made to the origin of the Samarkand manuscript. I believe that both claims are well substantiated. Muslim sources (and some independent sources such as UNESCO), after research, place the date of the manuscript in the 7th century CE at the time of Othman, but according to work done by 'A. Jeffery and I. Mendelsohn' in 'The Orthography of the Samarkand Codex', the date is placed 'early in the third Islamic century'. However, as per the current state of the article, the 7th century CE claim is seemingly being rejected, and more importance is being given to the 'A. Jeffery and I. Mendelsohn' claim.

And, I had ordered the references\citations as per their chronological mention in the article. But the article has since been edited to indicate the 'The orthography of the Samarkand Codex' reference to be listed first, and also an external link to that page has been added within the article to the 'The Orthography of the Samarkand Codex', as well as a a specific link to 'The Orthography of the Samarkand Codex' in the 'References' section. I personally have no problem in listing the 'A Jeffery and I. Mendelsohn' claim in the article, and in fact feel that it is vital that we do include that claim to give a more round point of view, but I feel that it should be done in a more neutral way. --Jibran1 02:36, 19 March 2006 (UTC)