Talk:Schur's inequality

weakening the hypothesis
I think if we replace the phrase

"for all positive real numbers x, y, z and t,"

with

"for all nonnegative real numbers x, y, z and a positive number t,"

, the inequality is still true.

Or any counterexample?


 * Yes, you're correct, see Mathematical Excalibur, Vol 10, Number 5, Dec05 to Jan06, online version at http://www.math.ust.hk/mathematical_excalibur/, further reference at the end of that article(Old and New Inequalities). --Lemontea 01:35, 26 March 2006 (UTC)

I agree - I'm going to update the page. Blitzer99 (talk) 20:35, 29 January 2020 (UTC)

Applications?
This article doesn't currently discuss where this inequality is typically used (e.g., what is it useful in proving or modelling?) Dcoetzee 20:56, 28 April 2008 (UTC)