Talk:The Wedding Dance

Rude to whom?
I'm a bit perplexed by the statements about the inappropriateness of the form of dancing in the painting. I have checked out Screech (2005), which supports nothing of this whatsoever, and I don't know where to find Hagen (2005). What does Hagen actually say on this matter? Because I doubt that Flemish peasants in the 16th century considered this type of dancing rude, but would not be at all surprised that the elite had more of a tendency to condemn their rustic subordinates.

Peter Isotalo 09:50, 9 June 2012 (UTC)


 * At the time dance was under strict rules, as it says in paragraph two of the Description. It would've been generally been considered rude to others, but not to themselves. --⇒ T  A  P  09:57, 9 June 2012 (UTC)
 * ✅, I've referenced the rules bit. Regards, ⇒ T A  P  10:04, 9 June 2012 (UTC)


 * That was an improvement, thank you. I think the "rude to many" should be changed to what's specified elsewhere, though. It looks to me like a classic case of the ruling elite attempting to assert their own sense of modesty over the unruly lower classes. With vague language this might be easily perceived as a breech of social norms that were fairly similar in all social classes, something which is more akin to how modern society works (even if norms still vary).
 * Peter Isotalo 10:15, 19 June 2012 (UTC)