Talk:Valencian linguistic conflict

Not CopyVio
I think CorenSearchBot is wrong. There is nothing on that page which suggests a copyvio...only one sentence is even on the page anyway! Reaper Eternal (talk) 01:36, 29 November 2010 (UTC)

Original research and POV
This article is mostly an original research and clearly disobeys to NPOV. See Identifying reliable sources, Neutral_point_of_view, Neutral_point_of_view/FAQ (Wikipedia's neutrality policy certainly does not state, or imply, that we should or must "give equal validity" to minority (sometimes pseudoscientific) views. It does state that we must not take a stand on them as encyclopedia writers, but that does not stop us from describing the majority views as such and using the words of reliable sources to present strong criticisms) and others. Xic667 (talk) 14:56, 4 March 2011 (UTC)
 * For the same reason, I considerate necessary to indicate clearly in the very beginning of the article who contests the commonly admitted origin of valencian. The actual formulation suggests that this controversy is widely shared, when it's only a very local issue, with no significance among the worldwide academic and scientific circles. Xic667 (talk) 20:17, 18 August 2011 (UTC)

Explicitly confirmed by Encyclopædia Britannica :

In "Spain" : "in the 1980s there were politically motivated disputes as to whether Valencian was a Catalan dialect or a distinct language." Xic667 (talk) 10:26, 4 February 2012 (UTC)

Non neutral POV in "The Catalan settlement thesis
This whole section is non neutral: "there would have arisen a vacuum that was filled with the arrival of settlers born in Aragon, Catalan and Castilian, so, establishing a before and after the Reconquista, without any continuity. Therefore, this theory argues that Valencian is nothing more than a Catalan dialect, in spite of the Catalan language having been born as such post-Reconquista, and brought by the newcomers with ingredients Aragon and Castille. This theory assumes that in the Taifa Kingdom of Valencia, there were Mozarab inhabitants left after the conquest, despite this having been an entirely peaceful action, and despite there being abundant evidence of the permanence of these Mozarabic converts and non-converts in the Middle Ages and their descendants in later centuries."

This theory, the most widely accepted among scholars, doesn't claim that there was a "vacuum" or that the original settlers left their lands, nor that Castillian settlers also moved in. This seems like written by someone willing to deny it. What this theory actually claims is that Catalan settlers from Lleida moved in to the coast of the Valencian territories, and that the inland territories of the region were settled by newly arrived Aragonese people. And, as happened in the Southern regions of Spain settled by CAstillians, such as Andalusia, the local population eventually mixed with the new settlers and adopted the official language. I'm removing the non neutral sentences that I can find straight away, and I will try to rewrite it again with references. If there is any problem, please let me know.