User:Bennaito

Chapter 1

1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

They are non-network connections.

They are used for initial router configuration.

They are asynchronous serial ports.

2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)

debugging.

password recovery.

troubleshooting.

3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?

provides connectivity over a large geographic area.

4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)

switching.

dynamic or static routing.

consistent end-to-end addressing.

5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)

terminal emulation software.

rollover cable.

RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.

6. Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

data bits.

parity.

stop bits.

7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)

routers.

communication servers.

modems.

8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)

stores routing table.

holds fast switching cache.

stores running configuration file.

9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)

does not depend on network services.

displays startup and error messages by default.

10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)

CPU.

input/output interfaces.

system bus.

11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?

rollover.

12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router’s configuration file?

non-volatile random access memory.

13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?

configuration files.

14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)

straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.

a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch.

15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?

non-volatile random access memory.

16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)

physical layer.

data link layer.

17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)

connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.

can be on the motherboard or a separate module.

connect the router to LANs and WANs.

18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)

troubleshooting problems.

monitoring the system.

configuring the router.

19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?

routing tables.

20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

retains contents when power is removed.

stores the startup configuration file.

21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)

can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.

stores Cisco IOS software images.

Chapter 2

1. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)

determine pathways for data

retime and retransmit data signals

manage data flows

2. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)

define the structure of layer specific PDU’s

outline the functions necessary for communications between layers

require layer dependent encapsulations

3. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.)

identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication

ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device

4. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?

supports error detection

5. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)

Physical

Data Link

6. What is a PDU?

a layer specific encapsulation

7. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?

originate data flow

8. Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”

an end device

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

Network B — WAN

Network C — LAN

Network A – LAN

10. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)

A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.

The network is administered by a single organization.

A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?

multiplexing

12. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?

to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices

13. What device is considered an intermediary device?

switch

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B?

intermediary

15. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

LAN

16. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?

network

17. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?

the destination host address

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

E, F, H, I, J

19. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?

The physical address is added.

20. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?

network media control

21. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?

application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

Chapter 4

1. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

The local host is using three client sessions.

The local host is using web sessions to a remote server.

2. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?

80

3. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?

source and destination

4. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?

minimal delays in data delivery

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?

reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged

6. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?

session establishment

7. Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost?

3431

8. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?

to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data

9. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?

The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.

10. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?

0 to 1023

11. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?

UDP

12. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)

low overhead

connectionless

13. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?

window size

14. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?

source port

15. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?

to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application

16. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)

identifies the communicating applications

identifies multiple conversations between the hosts

17. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?

flow control

session establishment

numbering and sequencing

18. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?

transport

19. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)

This contains a Telnet request.

This is a TCP header.

20. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?

TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?

Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.

Chapter 6

1. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

32

2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?

255.255.255.192

3. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?

IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.

/27

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

NAT is required for the host A network.

6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?

255.255.255.0

7. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?

This is a network address.

8. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)

is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain

varies in length

is used to forward packets

9. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?

10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000

10. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

172.16.192.160

11. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?

Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.

12. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)

The router will discard the packet.

The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.

13. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

larger address space

data types and classes of service

authentication and encryption

14. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?

binary ANDing

15. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?

expanded addressing capabilities

16. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)

10.35.66.70

192.168.99.5

172.18.88.90

17. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)

Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.

IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

18. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

172.16.4.155 /26

172.16.4.193 /26

172.16.4.207 /27

19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?

a network

20. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

21. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)

servers

network printers

routers

Chapter 7

1. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

non-deterministic

less overhead

collisions exist

2. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

facilitate the entry and exit of data on media

3. Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

8

4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for http://www.server?

00-0c-85-cf-65-c0

6. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

They are 48 binary bits in length.

They are considered physical addresses.

They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.

7. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

source MAC – Fa0/1 on RouterB

source IP – PC

8. What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

media sharing

logical topology

9. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

10. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card

Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme

11. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.

Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

12. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

MAC

13. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD

defined as placement of data frames on the media

Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media

14. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

The media access control protocol can be very simple.

15. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)

The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.

The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

16. What is a function of the data link layer?

provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

the geographic scope of the network

the physical layer implementation

the number of hosts to be interconnected

18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

support frame error detection

19. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

physical topology

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.

Chapter 8

1. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

backbone cable

2. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

RJ-45

3. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

when connecting a host to a switch

4. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire

5. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?

Physical

6. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

OTDR

7. XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)

Cat5 UTP

Cat6 UTP

8. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.

9. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

goodput

throughput

bandwidth

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?

crossover cable

11. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?

fiber

12. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

ten třetí bassovič

13. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

wireless

14. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

It is not affected by EMI or RFI.

It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

15. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

generally uses lasers as the light source

16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

more host mobility

17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

the twisting of the wires in the cable

18. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media

Chapter 11

1. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?

UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

2. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

after a system restart

as the commands are entered

3. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0

enable password 7 14141E0A1F17

line console 0

password 7 020507550A

4. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?

Console

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?

RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0

RouterB(config-line)# password cisco

RouterB(config-line)# login

6. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?

show interfaces

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)

privileged executive mode

enable mode

8. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

Router(config)# hostname Fontana

9. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

10. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?

IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

11. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?

NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address

12. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

show startup-config

show running-config

13. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

hot keys

context-sensitive

command syntax check

14. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)

The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.

The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

15. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?

Ctrl-Shift-6

16. The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?

Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

17. In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?

Flash

18. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?

Console (This option)

19. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

SSH