User:Eliah/RQ

Chapter 12

1. Which of the following is the BEST definition of "induction"? a. a process in which you draw specific claims on the basis of previous, general knowledge. b. assessments of how frequently various events have happened in the past c. a reasoning process by which you make suitable adjustments to an anchor estimate
 * d. a process in which you draw some general conclusions from specific facts or observations

2. Use of the availability heuristic permits occasional errors to emerge. All of the following are errors caused by the use of this heuristic EXCEPT: b. deciding that there are more words that start with r than there are words that have r as the third letter, because of the way your memory of words is organized. c. deciding that more people in general own rats than dogs, because this is the case with your friends and family d. thinking anterograde amnesia is common because there are several famous cases of it.
 * a. deciding that Gandhi probably lived quite a long time, because the original suggestion given to you was 140 years

3. The text describes one study in which participants were asked either to come up with 6 times or 12 times they had been assertive in the past. Which of the following best describes the results from this study? a. Most participants were unable to come up with more than 2 or 3 times they had been assertive. c. Both groups' estimates depended entirely on their personal histories. d. Participants who came up with fewer examples judged themselves to be less assertive.
 * b. Participants who came up with more examples judged themselves to be less assertive.

4. The fact that people report motor-vehicle deaths as more common than diabetes, and homicides as more common than stomach cancer, MOST directly reflects which of the following: a. simulation bias b. anchoring bias d. representativeness bias.
 * c. media bias

5. The representativeness heuristic relies on the assumption that: a. in making decisions, we start with a ballpark estimate and adjust it. c. individuals need not represent the populations from which they were drawn. d. patterns we can easily remember are probably common patterns.
 * b. the categories we think about are relatively internally homogenous.

6. Consider two hospitals: Hospital A has an average of 10 births per day, and Hospital B has an average of 100 births per day. We know that, on average, 50 percent of the overall babies born are male. Which hospital is likely to report more days on which 75 percent of the babies born were boys?. a. Both hospitals are equally likely to report days on which 75 percent of the babies were boys. b. Hospital B d. Neither hospital will make this report. This unequal birth ratio is extremely unlikely to arise at either hospital
 * c. Hospital A

7. When people are explicitly told that a particular instance is NOT representative of the larger group, they: b. tend to act as if the larger group is the exact opposite of the instance. c. act in a manner consistent with their prior beliefs about the larger group and ignore the particular instance. d. show a similar, but weaker, effect of the anchoring heuristic.
 * a. often continue to reason as if the instance IS representative of the larger group.

8. With regard to the “man who” arguments described by Nisbett and Ross (1980): a. We make these arguments because of our assumption that categories are heterogeneous. b. These are not sound even when the whole category closely resembles the single instance. d. We make these arguments because we extrapolate from what we know of an entire set to a single case.
 * c. A “sample of one” cannot outweigh a much larger sample.

9. Which of the following is NOT true of the anchoring heuristic? a. It can combine with other biases so that even if you aware of the biases you do not sufficiently correct them. b. Estimates can be manipulated simply by introducing a quantitative framework for the answer. d. An initial estimate, even if clearly incorrect, will influence a subsequent judgment.
 * c. Low anchors have little effect, but high anchors are highly influential.

10. Between which of the following would you expect there to be a strong NEGATIVE covariation? b. depressing thoughts; crying c. fabric quality and design; price-tag value d. fondness for candy; body weight
 * a. alcohol consumed; hand-eye coordination

11. Which of the following was NOT true with regard to the illusory covariations found in studies of how people interpret (real or simulated) Rorschach responses? a. Undergraduate students with no prior training perceived covariations between the responses to the inkblots and respondent characteristics. b. Professional training and experience did not make participants immune to illusory covariations. c. The covariations perceived by untrained undergraduate participants were identical to those perceived by professional clinicians.
 * d. Although there was no covariation between buttocks and homosexuality in the experiment, there was in the clinical data.

12. Compared to theory-driven judgments, data-driven judgments are ______. b. less cautious c. likely to be made when prior experience in the domain is available d. more dependent on the representativeness heuristic
 * a. more accurate

13. Which of the following is NOT true about confirmation bias? a. It works to bring our recollections into line with our expectations. b. It makes people more alert and responsive to evidence that confirms their beliefs than to challenging evidence. d. It makes us unlikely to seek counterexamples.
 * c. Its effects are usually offset by our general ability to think about covariation.

14. When reasoning, it is important to consider the overall likelihood that an individual will be in one category or another, independent of diagnostic information. This overall likelihood is called: a. stereotyping. c. neglect. d. the standard error rate.
 * b. the base rate.

15. Kahneman and Tversky (1973) asked participants to make judgments about the likelihood that people with certain characteristics were lawyers or engineers. These participants were also told the proportion of people in the overall population who were lawyers or engineers. In this situation, a. Participants made their judgments based on a combination of base rate and diagnostic information. b. Participants ignored both types of information and made their decisions at random. c. Participants ignored diagnostic information and relied only on base rate.
 * d. Participants ignored base rate and relied only on diagnostic information.

16. Poor diagnostic reasoning and illusory correlations have been documented in all of the following cases EXCEPT: a. individuals with considerable experience in the domain being judged. b. participants who have been offered cash bonuses for accurate performance. c. individuals for whom the stakes are very high (e.g., doctors and financial advisors).
 * d. All of the above individuals demonstrate these errors.

17. In which of the following cases are individuals MOST able avoid errors of illusory covariation? b. when their grasp of the importance of sample size is weak c. when expertise in the relevant domain is high d. when they are strongly motivated to do well.
 * a. when they have no pre-existing ideas about a category

18. In one study, participants were told about a characteristic of one individual and then asked how representative they thought this characteristic was of the entire category. All of the following are results of this study EXCEPT: a. If told the chemical composition of a mineral, people were willing to generalize from this single case. b. If told about the body size of a specific person, People hesitated to generalize from this. d. In the right situations, people were unwilling to accept “man who” type arguments.
 * c. In all cases, people tended to generalize from just one or two individuals.

19. According to the dual-process model of reasoning, one mode of thought is ______, whereas the other mode of thought is ______. a. association-driven; speedy c. slower; effort-requiring d. automatic; effortless
 * b. automatic, effortful

20. People are MOST likely to use heuristics: a. when explicit training has primed the effortful system. b. if they are fully alert and without distraction. c. if they have high IQs. 21. Judgments are BEST if people are given information about a population sample in which of the following forms? b. “10%” c. “.1” d. “a probability of one-tenth”
 * d. if they are under time pressure.
 * a. “10 out of 100”

22. Which of the following does NOT increase that likelihood that we will rise above simple heuristics in our reasoning? a. The role of chance is conspicuous in the evidence we are considering. c. We are given data in a form that is easy to translate into statistical terms. d. We have background knowledge that allows us to interpret base rate in a causally meaningful way.
 * b. There are loud, distracting sounds going on in the background.

23. Which of the following is NOT true about statistical training? a. a single training session of less than an hour improves judgment. c. a course in statistics can improve judgment even in tasks not connected to the course. d. training probably helps by allowing us to trigger System 2 thinking more easily.
 * b. training makes us more effective in using the representative heuristic.

24. Which is not a reason background knowledge is useful in reasoning? a. It helps us know which categories are more homogenous than others. b. It can give the base rates more meaning, which makes us more likely to use them. d. It helps people figure out the causal history of evidence.
 * c. It impairs our ability to use the anchoring heuristic.

25. Why does statistical training have an effect? a. It gives us System 2, which we can then use. c. It shows us how effective heuristics are. d. It causes us to use System 2 for all problems.
 * b. It makes it easier to for us trigger System 2.

Answers: 1.d   2.a   3.b    4.c   5.b   6.c   7.a   8.c   9.d   10.a   11.d   12.a   13.c   14.b   15.d   16.d   17.a   18.c   19.b   20.d   21.a   22.b    23.b   24.c   25.b

Chapter 13

1. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to the confirmation bias? b. People often fail to use disconfirming evidence when they encounter it. c. People are more likely to seek confirming than disconfirming evidence. d. People fail to consider alternative hypotheses that might account for the data.
 * a. People tend to take disconfirming evidence at face value.

2. Participants were MOST likely to guess correctly the rule behind a series of numbers if they: a. remembered incorrect guesses as almost correct instead of wrong. b. focused on providing support for their own theories. d. carefully scrutinized disconfirming evidence for flaws and inconsistencies.
 * c. asked questions that could disconfirm their theories.

3. In the study in which people were asked to judge their social sensitivity after being given false positive or negative feedback (but then debriefed), participants were clearly influenced by a. views they had of themselves before the experiment. c. the feedback they had been given, but only if they had forgotten the debriefing that undermined this feedback. d. a memory search done after debriefing to help them disconfirm the false feedback.
 * b. the feedback they had been given, even though they knew it was false.

4. People are often selective in how they search memory for evidence. As a result, a. they usually search memory for evidence that might challenge their current beliefs. c. they usually search memory looking only for recently-acquired evidence. d. they usually search memory looking only for self-flattering evidence.
 * b. they usually search memory for evidence that might confirm their current beliefs.

5. Which of the following is NOT true regarding categorical syllogisms? a. People usually agree that if "all P are M" and "all S are M", then "all P are S." c. People are more likely to endorse conclusions that support what they already believe to be true. d. Performance improves when syllogisms are spelled out in concrete terms.
 * b. When syllogisms endorse conclusions people believe to be false, they will scrutinize them particularly hard, and therefore answer more accurately.

6. What is the common definition of a matching strategy? a. If the two premises match each other, the conclusion is accepted. c. Statements with the same structure are all seen as identical. d. People accept syllogisms when the conclusions match their beliefs.
 * b. If the conclusion matches the premises in wording and structure, it is accepted.

7. Which of the following represents a conversion error? b. endorsing "All A are D" after seeing the premises "All A are B" and "All D are B" c. endorsing "Some A are not B" after seeing the premises “Some A are B” d. failing to endorse "All A are B" on viewing it for the second time
 * a. endorsing "Some F are not G" after seeing the premise "Some G are not F"

8. Errors in reasoning about conditional statements are LESS common when: a. the conclusions diverge from one’s prior beliefs. b. problems are abstract rather than concrete. c. the problems involve negatives.
 * d. the logical rule under question is modus ponens rather than modus tollens.

9. According to the logical error called ______, the following conclusion is justified: "If C is true, then D is true. D is true. Therefore, C must be true." a. denying the antecedent b. modus ponens d. modus tollens
 * c. affirming the consequent

10. Responses to the Wason four-card task (“If an odd number on one side, then a vowel on the other”) versus the Griggs and Cox drinking-age task (“If drinking alcohol then must be over 18”) present a challenge to what previous assumption? a. It is substance of the argument, not the form, that matters for thought. b. Belief bias is an integral part of logical reasoning. c. Thought is heavily influenced by experience.
 * d. Formal logic does not depend on the content of assertions.

11. Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to suggest that people perform well on the Griggs and Cox drinking age task (“If drinking alcohol then must be over 18”) because of an evolved special talent in: b. cause-and-effect relations. c. understanding permission. d. reasoning about obligations.
 * a. detecting cheaters.

12. People seem NOT to have pragmatic reasoning schemata that apply to situations involving a. cause-and-effect relations b. obligations c. permission
 * d. if-then relations in general

13.. Sometimes you get candy just as a treat, no matter what you’ve done recently. In that context, the sentence “If you clean your room, you can have candy” describes a condition that is. a. necessary and sufficient b. necessary but not sufficient d. neither sufficient nor necessary
 * c. sufficient but not necessary

14. Which statement about mental models is FALSE? a. A syllogism can be checked by trying to create models that fit with the premises but not the conclusion. b. Some premises can be modeled in more than one way. c. Mental models can be used for syllogisms and conditionals
 * d. The more models a problem requires, the more accurate the solutions tend to be.

15. According to utility theory, people should not: a. calculate expected value based on subjective ratings. c. try to maximize benefits and minimize costs. d. accommodate trade-offs in their decision making. 16. Which of the following is true of utility theory? a. Utility maximization is stigmatized since it implies greed. b. It provides a sloppy but efficient way of moving towards goals. c. It accurately accounts for the decisions people make.
 * b. allow the wording of a choice to affect expected value.
 * d. It involves comparison of summed expected values (utility x probability).

17. If a politician is trying to convince voters to support an action, she would probably have the most success by framing the choice in terms of a. risk if the action involves gains c. expected value (gains vs. losses is irrelevant) d. formal logic if the choice is complex
 * b. being cautious if the action involves gains

18. If people are making reason-based choices rather than utility-based ones, we would expect them to act in the following way: b. give personal gains higher priority than justifications. c. confine reason-based choices to the lab setting. d. engage in strict gain/loss comparison reasoning.
 * a. if there is no clear reason to choose A over B, choose neither.

19. According to the principle of mental accounting, most people, when told an item they are buying is $5 less at another store across town, will. a. go to the other store no matter what the item is b. go to the other store only if the item is expensive. d. remain at the first store no matter what the item is.
 * c. go to the other store only if the item is inexpensive.

20. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to the role of emotions in decision making? a. Certain emotions can cause clear bodily reactions. c. Having justification for decisions can help defend against the emotion of regret. d. People with damage impairing their “gut feelings” are less likely to avoid risky choices.
 * b. Emotions have little place in the reasoned process of decision making.

21. Two parents are presented in a hypothetical custody case. One parent has moderate traits, while the other has some extremely good and some extremely bad traits. When asked who they would award custody to, the majority of people say would award custody to _______. a. the parent with moderate traits. c. either parent, because the extreme positive and extreme negative traits will in effect cancel each other out. d. neither parent, because the choice is too confusing.
 * b. the parent with extreme traits.

22. In a game where one chooses cards from either a high-risk or low-risk stack, participants with orbitofrontal damage a. chose cards from the low-risk stack. b. behaved the same as participants without brain damage. d. correctly assessed the risk but found it exciting rather than aversive.
 * c. only showed increased arousal after turning over a card.

23. Which of the following is TRUE about decision making? a. Overall, people are quite good at predicting their own future reactions. c. Having the option to back out of a decision increases the likelihood of satisfaction with that decision. d. People tend to overestimate their ability to adapt to new features in their environment.
 * b. People tend to overestimate how much they'll later regret their errors.

24. Utility theory seems wrong as a ____ theory of decision making, but looks plausible as a _____ theory: b. normative; descriptive c. risk-seeking; risk-averse d. risk-averse; risk-seeking
 * a. descriptive; normative

25. Decisions based on utility calculations should: a. make us vulnerable to external manipulations. c. lead to self-contradictions. d. be most likely in situations involving questions of morality.
 * b. be immune to framing effects.

Answers: 1.a   2.c   3.c   4.d   5.b   6.b   7.a   8.d   9.c   10.d   11.a   12.d   13.c   14.d   15.b   16.d   17.b   18.a   19.c   20.b   21.b   22.c   23.b   24.a   25.b

Chapter 14

1. In the “Hobbits and Orcs” problem, the ratio of Hobbits to Orcs traveling on the boat would be considered _____________. a. an operator c. a goal state d. an initial state.
 * b. a path constraint

2. Problem-solving heuristics do NOT a. increase the efficiency of problem solving strategies. b. strategically decrease the size of the problem space. d. involve an accuracy-efficiency trade-off.
 * c. guarantee a feasible solution.

3. You live in western Massachusetts and need to get to San Francisco to close a business deal by the following night. Because the only flights that are available are in Boston, you drive east to Boston, in order to catch the first flight to San Francisco that morning. This solution would be impossible if you had exclusively employed a a. means-end analysis b. working-backward strategy c. working-forward analysis
 * d. hill-climbing strategy

4. The strategy whereby one compares the current state to the goal state, often using this information to break a large problem into smaller subproblems, is called b. hill-climbing strategy c. working backward d. analogy generation
 * a. means-end analysis

5. Which features of a problem would cause pictures to be a more useful strategy than mental images? a. The elements of the problem can be visualized. b. The problem solution requires rearrangement of elements. c. The problem requires frequent size or shape modifications of an image.
 * d. The problem solution requires a change in reference frame.

6. In the Gick and Holyoak paradigm, participants were required to solve the tumor problem. Those who demonstrated the fastest solution times were the participants who: a. read the “General and Fortress” solution prior to reading the tumor problem. b. had encountered other problems about tumors that were unrelated to the current problem in deep structure. d. applied the strategy from solving the “Hobbits and Orcs” problem to the tumor problem.
 * c. read the “General and Fortress” solution and were told to apply it to the tumor problem.

7. In one experiment, participants were first exposed to the “General and Fortress” problem and then the tumor problem. However, many failed to use the first problem as a helpful analogy in solving the second problem. How can the procedure be modified to increase use of the “General and Fortress” analogy? a. draw attention to surface similarities b. suggest that they think about something else for a while, then return to the tumor problem d. draw attention away from the underlying structure
 * c. provide additional analogous problems.

8. Chess experts are better at remembering chess positions than novices because: b. they never use a working-backwards strategy. c. they rely more heavily on the use of analogies. d. they have larger memories than novices.
 * a. they use chunking strategies.

9. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic distinguishing experts in a particular domain from novices in that domain? a. Experts organize their knowledge more effectively. c. Experts have more automatized routines to deal with different type of problems. d. Experts have more knowledge than novices in their domain of expertise.
 * b. Experts rely more heavily on the working backwards strategy.

10. A non-sports-watching academic, and the coach of the Denver Broncos are told to memorize different football-player configurations. The academic performs: a. worse than the coach on random player configurations, but comparable on the preset play positions. b. worse than the coach on all player configurations. d. better than the coach on all player configurations.
 * c. worse than the coach on the preset play positions, but comparable on the random player configurations.

11. Which of the following statements is true? b. The only benefit of incubation may be that it helps people recover from fatigue. c. Historical evidence supports the idea that problem solving happens in four consistent steps. d. Flashes of insight or illumination, when they arrive, almost always lead directly to the problem’s solution.
 * a. Creativity may be an extraordinary product that results from the right combination of ordinary processes.

12. Participants are given a pair of pliers to help solve the two string problem. Which situation would help overcome the effects of functional fixedness? a. The participants see the experimenter use the pliers to pull a tack out of a table. b. Participants are given a full toolbox with the pliers included. c. Participants complete the “Hobbits and Orcs” problem before attempting the two-string problem.
 * d. The experimenter ‘absent-mindedly’ sets one of the strings swinging back and forth while giving the instructions.

13. Participants’ performance with the water-jar problem, where in each trial they are given three jars of different sizes and need to use those jars to come up with a certain volume of water, demonstrates a. functional fixedness b. incubation c. working backward
 * d. Einstellung

14. Einstellung refers to a state in which a. people add path constraints to an ill-defined problem to make it more well-defined. c. an expert shows advanced chunking strategies that novices are unable to match d. a problem-solver experiences an “aha” moment before a correct discovery
 * b. people approach all problems of a certain sort with the same rigid strategy

15. People had a hard time solving the problem of how to support a candle on a wall. Why? a. They had a hard time understanding the task. b. They did not have time for incubation to lead to illumination. c. They did not have the relevant set of physical skills.
 * d. They had trouble seeing past the most salient functions of their tools.

16. Regarding the use of analogies in problem solving: b. Explicit hints about useful analogies do not prove beneficial to problem solvers. c. People spontaneously make analogies between superficially different problems. d. To use analogy, people must prevent themselves from mapping one situation onto another. 17. the pattern of causal relationships within a problem is the problem’s ______. a. means-end frame b. surface structure d. reference frame
 * a. Students taught new information via analogy were better able to make inferences from that information.
 * c. deep structure

18. All of the following are true with regard to the presentation of multiple analogues EXCEPT: a. Prior presentation of two analogues results in better performance than prior presentation of just one. b. Seeing multiple analogues highlights the underlying structure of the story. d. Participants told that they would be instructing others were more likely to make the appropriate analogies than those told simply to remember it.
 * c. Seeing multiple analogues is helpful for experts but for novices it is just confusing.

19. How does memory search in highly creative people differ from memory search in everyone else? a. highly creative people have extra machinery available to them. c. highly creative people are much faster at searching memory. d. highly creative people use activation but not inhibition.
 * b. highly creative people are better at making novel associations.

20. All of the following are effective strategies for turning an ill-defined problem into a well-defined problem EXCEPT: a. establishing subgoals. c. adding extra constraints. d. adding extra assumptions.
 * b. broadening your set of options and operators.

21. Which of the following responses is a result of Einstellung? b. flexibility in seeking alternative solutions. c. improvement in performance when a prior formula is seen to lead to a dead end. d. failure to automatize successful strategies.
 * a. overlooking a simple response in favor of a practiced, more difficult one.

22. What is a benefit of problem-solving sets? a. They widen your options. c. They make sure your search is thorough. d. They have no benefits and should be avoided. 23. Which of the following things have highly creative people had in common? a. extreme sensitivity to criticism b. external (rather than internal) motivation c. low tolerance for ambiguous findings 24. Wallas believed, probably incorrectly, that creative thought proceeds through four stages in the following order: b. preparation, illumination, incubation, verification c. incubation, verification, preparation, illumination d. incubation, unconscious effort, verification, illumination
 * b. They allow you to focus your search.
 * d. they were in the right place at the right time
 * a. preparation, incubation, illumination, verification

25. Which of the following statements about creative thought is most likely to be true? a. Creative people have less need than others to locate remote associates in memory. c. Incubation works by allowing people to work on a problem’s solution unconsciously until it is ready to re-enter consciousness. d. Highly creative people have almost nothing in common except luck.
 * b. The aha experience implies only that we've discovered a new approach a problem, not that we've discovered the right solution.

Answers: 1.b   2.c   3.d   4.a   5.d   6.c   7.c   8.a   9.b   10.c   11.a   12.d   13.d   14.b   15.d   16.a   17.c   18.c   19.b   20.b   21.a   22.b   23.d   24.a   25.b

Chapter 15

1. Unconscious influences on conscious thinking include all of the following EXCEPT a. subliminal priming c. unnoticed assumptions (sets) that guide problem solving d. frames in the way questions are posed
 * b. the “inner dialogue” we sometimes have

2. Over and over, research shows us that a. people are aware of the mental processes that lead up to a behavior. b. introspection can tell us whether we actually perceived something or only inferred it from incomplete data. d. if you reason carefully and deliberately, you are able to circumvent the influences of the unconscious.
 * c. peoples’ introspections are often wrong, even if they are 100% confident in them.

3. When people offer explanations for their behaviors and decisions, it is because a. they were able to observe their thought processes and report on them. b. though they cannot directly observe thought, they can recognize after the fact which hypotheses about their thoughts are correct. d. they are embarrassed that they don’t know the real explanations, so they make some up.
 * c. they are able to make hypotheses based on what they know about the current situation and their past experiences.

4. When participants were shown a passage from Rabbit Run and asked to point to the section that was responsible for their emotional reaction, they a. were each confident in their answers, but all pointed to different sections. b. agreed about which section was responsible and were proven correct. c. were unable to say with any confidence which section was responsible.
 * d. agreed about which section was responsible but were proven incorrect.

5. When people reconstruct their thought processes, what does it most often feel like? b. lying c. guessing d. being told
 * a. remembering

6. Patients with blind sight: a. can see large shapes and bright colors. b. will perform at chance when guessing whether shapes are Xs or Os. d. will claim that they can visually detect information about objects.
 * c. will reach towards targets and adjust their hand position appropriately.

7. The unconscious is NOT: a. dependent on well-established routines. b. composed of relatively specialized parts. c. guided by habit.
 * d. able to respond to situations in novel ways.

8. Which is the clearest example of what psychologists call an action slip? a. Duncan is not paying attention to where he is going and he trips on the sidewalk. b. Wallace is not paying attention in class and is doodling on his notes instead. d. Madison is unable to see objects, because of brain damage, but she is able to correctly “guess” certain features of the objects.
 * c. Logan is distracted driving to the mall, and he turns the wrong way, down the street he takes to school every day.

9. Consciousness b. includes all the processes involved in our mental lives. c. is located within the workspace neurons. d. is only possible when there’s unlimited focused attention.
 * a. is a state of awareness of sensation or ideas.

10. What is an advantage for conscious, as opposed to unconscious, performance? a. It allows mental tasks to run more quickly. b. It does not require constant attention. d. It is immune to effects of framing.
 * c. It is much more flexible.

11. Different areas of the brain are highly specialized. Each area does its own job and activity there tends to be highly transient. ______________ is what enables us to sustain the activity in these various systems. a. automaticity c. unconsciousness d. creativity
 * b. attention

12. The neuronal workspace hypothesis attempts to explain ______________ consciousness. b. phenomenal c. extended d. self-knowledge
 * a. access

13. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. The cognitive unconscious allows for cognitive efficiency at the cost of cognitive flexibility. b. Remembering is a reconstructive process. d. To act on information we have access to, we usually need a reason to take the information seriously.
 * c. Conscious processing is more efficient than unconscious processing, but is also relatively unsophisticated.

14. In the Nisbett and Schachter study, participants were asked to let the experimenter know when they no longer wanted to continue receiving electric shocks. Which of the following is true of the participants who had taken a placebo pill? a. They correctly attributed their physical symptoms to the electric shocks. b. They tolerated fewer electric shocks than those not receiving the placebo pill. c. They reported thinking about the pill frequently during the experiment.
 * d. They experienced shaking and upset-stomach symptoms similar to those in participants not receiving the placebo pill.

15. Which of the following is NOT the case with regard to mistaken introspections? a. Participants usually report high levels of confidence in their reports. b. Participants often highlight aspects of the situation as important when it turns out later that they were not. d. Participants often fail to mention factors that were in fact crucially important in their decision.
 * c. After-the-fact reconstructions and true introspections are easily distinguishable by the person doing the introspection.

16. In her research study, Meg presents the word "bread" so quickly that participants are not even aware that they saw it. Still, they are faster than controls to respond to the word "butter" when it is presented a few moments later. In this case, "bread" acted as a: a. decision frame. b. verbal representation. c. action slip.
 * d. subliminal prime.

17. Evidence from patients with damage to the striate cortex (blindsight patients) indicates that: b. they were unable to reach accurately for a target object even though they reported seeing it. c. they were unresponsive to flashes of light, but could navigate effectively around a room. d. they cannot guess the shapes of stimuli even when they are very simple (e.g. squares and circles). 18. Which was NOT identified by the textbook as something that the various cases of unconscious processing have in common? a. They all rely on well-defined processing modules. c. They are typically guided by the situation itself. d. Each is specialized, doing a job in an identifiable domain.
 * a. they can see without being aware of seeing.
 * b. They are accompanied by an internal sensation of agency in the person who is acting.

19. We would expect an ______ most if a situation calls for a(n) ________ response: a. explicit process; well-rehearsed. b. implicit action; unprimed. d. action slip; well-rehearsed.
 * c. action slip; unconventional.

20. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of attention as discussed by the textbook? a. sustain activity in various systems for prolonged scrutiny b. integrate activity of different systems into a coherent whole d. amplify activity within neural systems
 * c. consolidate newly acquired memories

21. All of the following are benefits we reap from the neuronal workspace EXCEPT: a. a feeling that our conscious experience is unitary and coherent. c. the ability to maintain a mental representation in an active state for an extended period of time. d. the ability to compare the contents being worked on by two neural systems.
 * b. being aware of all mental processes taking place at a given time.

22. According to some current theories, information that is consciously available is considered trustworthy enough to act upon whenever a. one does not have brain damage b. it is vivid enough to base a guess on c. it involves concepts that we are familiar with
 * d. it is confirmed by multiple different systems

23. phenomenal consciousness refers to the state in which we have b. self-awareness and self-reflection c. the ability to use our own knowledge d. the ability to perform automatic actions when the correct triggers are present
 * a. subjective experience

24. The integration of diverse elements in the workspace is NOT necessary for a. detection of conflict b. comparison across the processing components c. inhibition of a habitual act 25. The role of the anterior cingulate cortex, with regard to the neuronal workspace, is to a. control the phonological loop c. connect an object’s color with an object’s location d. initiate the drive for spontaneity
 * d. color perception
 * b. detect and resolve conflicts among different brain systems

Answers: 1.b   2.c   3.c   4.d   5.a   6.c   7.d   8.c   9.a   10.c   11.b   12.a   13.c   14.d   15.c   16.d   17.a   18.b   19.c   20.c   21.b   22.d   23.a   24.d   25.b