User:Kevinj222

I was diagnosed with ddd nearley four years ago after suffering a prolapsed disc at work whilst lifting things off a high shelf. I was told the cause of my ddd was not as a result of the accident I had and it was a condition that would very likey have occured regardless of the prolapsed disc. In the aticle ddd in Wikipedia, this tells of a different story where trauma macro or micro can begin the degenerative process. Therefore, the questions remains, which version is correct?

Before my accident where I suffered the prolapsed disc at work, I was fit, in full time employment as a teacher and excercised regularly to stay in reasonable shape. I now cannot work, am in constant pain and told this accident has not cuased my ddd. I disagree as, as said I was fully fit before and had no history of spine troubles beforehand.

So really I am just trying to clear up what is right and wrong in this situation....

could the accident I suffered be a major player in my now degenerative spine condition and....

would the ddd of happened anyway (regardless of the accident) and if so how can a doctor be sure this is a correct statement especially when I displayed no symptoms before the accident?

Any input or thoughts from others on this would be great, who can comment on this or who have thier own experience in this condition would be helpful to my search for answers.

Kevin.