User:Striver/33:33

there are many verses of the Quran which at the beginning deal with a certain person (or persons) and then the latter part of the verse deals with someone else. for one, if you read surat yusif, at one point in the story the governor of Egypt tells Yusif "Yusufu 3arith an 7atha (Yusif keep away from this)" then right after in the same verse he says "wastaghfiri li thambiki innaki kunti min al khati'een (and ask forgiveness for your sin, you were indeed a sinner)". Notice this last part of the verse is in reference to the wife of the governor who had tried to tempt Prophet Yusif as.gif, for it is in the feminine, while the beginning was in reference to Prophet Yusif as.gif, since it refers to him by name and is in the masculine. i am at work now so I do not have the exact reference, but it is somewhere near the middle of Surat Yusif. there are several other verses also that also fluctuate back and forth in reference to different individuals, WITHIN the same verse. but this verse in and of itself is enough proof to show that the argument that ayat al tatheer does not have to refer to the wives of the Prophet (saw) simply because at the beginning the reference was to the wives of the Prophet (saw), for this is not always the case with other verses of the Quran. Also, if the reference was to the wives of the Prophet (saw) at the beginning of the verse, than the later part of the verse would exclude the Prophet (saw) also, for the same reason that it would exlude Imam Ali as.gif, Fatima, Hassan and Hussain as.gif.

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