User:Voltagedrop

Q: what does the mathematical pirate say?

A:$$rrrrrrrr\ dr\ d\theta\ d \phi\ !$$


 * $$\left \langle \psi \right |$$


 * $$\Psi = A\psi$$ s.t.


 * $$ A^2\int _{-\infty}^{\infty} {\psi ^* \psi} dx = 1$$


 * where $$\psi^*$$ is the complex conjugate of $$\psi$$

$$ 2A + 3B +4{e^-}{\to} 5C + 6D$$

$$\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot x} = \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \ddot x}$$

$$e^{i\pi} - 1 = 0$$

$$ x = \frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2 -4ac}}{2a}$$

$$G_{\mu\nu} = -8 \pi GT_{\mu\nu}$$

$$\gamma = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}}$$

where $$\beta = \frac{v}{c}$$

$$\nabla \cdot \mathbf{D} = \rho$$

$$\nabla \cdot \mathbf{B} = 0$$

$$\nabla \times \mathbf{E} = - \frac{\partial\mathbf{B}}{\partial t}$$

$$\nabla \times \mathbf{H} = \mathbf{J} + \frac{\partial\mathbf{B}}{\partial t}$$

$$H(t)\left | \Psi (t) \right\rangle = i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t}\left | \Psi (t) \right\rangle$$

$$f(x) \sim \frac{1}{2} a_0 + \sum_{n = 1}^\infty \Big ( a_n \cos \left ( nx \right )+ b_n \sin  \left ( nx \right ) \Big ) $$

$$ a_n = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} {f(t) \cos \left ( nt \right ) dt} $$

$$ b_n = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} {f(t) \sin \left ( nt \right ) dt} $$