User talk:37.239.18.53

What is the flaw in the stated argument about twin prime?
Let (a, b )are twin primes such that , b—a=2, or , (b/2a)={(1/a)+1/2} Now If we can express, (b/2a)<1, as an infinite decimal, (s1,...,sn) ,such that, (s1,...,sn) ,tends to be a prime (as n tends to infinity), then

Question: can we say, there are infinitly many primes with a level of distribution = {(1/2)+1/a}, where ,a, can be arbitrary big ? Dayyeni (talk) 03:55, 26 April 2020 (UTC)