User talk:98.150.210.38

I don't get the quick note about the "reduced Planck mass." The "Planck mass" already has the "reduced Planck constant," Latex as $\hbar$, in the equation and should already be reduced to the associated angular treatment. Is the "reduced Planck mass" a reduced-reduced constant? Where does the second reduction come from without a transform back to the time domain? This seems upsetting, especially without some context... There is a surprising lack of context for such a topic in this part of the public domain in which scientist contribute.