User talk:John637

October 2015
Welcome to Wikipedia and thank you for your contributions. I am glad to see that you are discussing a topic. However, as a general rule, talk pages such as User talk:Tgeorgescu are for discussion related to improving the article, not general discussion about the topic or unrelated topics. If you have specific questions about certain topics, consider visiting our reference desk and asking them there instead of on article talk pages. Thank you. Tgeorgescu (talk) 01:19, 17 October 2015 (UTC)

Thank you for your remarks, however, considering the comments posted on your page under "Why am I a god and a Son of God?" - my response is certainly appropriate. Your interpretation of scripture is based purely on your own subjective opinion. The response below explains why it is flawed and based on distortion.John637 (talk) 12:14, 17 October 2015 (UTC)

Note to Tgeorgscu - regarding the post on your page "Why am I a god and a Son of God?"

You say that you "don't want to be associated with absurdities of the Bible." That is a very unfortunate statement. The truth is there are no “absurdities” in the Bible, but some people think there are. It’s a most unfortunate statement first, because it shows your obvious distrust of the Bible and second, what that actually means for you unless that view changes. The Bible is the Word of God Himself. That is a statement of fact, and a statement of faith. But without delving into that further for this response, let me just stick to what you said the Bible says about you and everyone. First, the Bible does not say what you think it says. The conclusion you draw from Psalm 82:6 is taken by taking the passage out of context. Psalm 82 does not say that all humans are gods and Sons of God. A seemingly obscure passage of scripture must not be interpreted in a way to pervert or contradict clear passages. All Scripture must be understood in the sense it was used at its place and time, according to grammar and in context. Psalm 82 is talking about the corrupt rulers of Israel who had abused the trust given them by God. These were men appointed by God to represent Him as judges among His people. They were not “gods” not because they were divine beings themselves (hence the quotes) but because of their position as God’s representatives. The Psalm calls for judgment upon them because they were violating that trust by persecuting the innocent and tolerating wickedness. It calls for judgment on “rulers” of today who do the same. Now in that context read verses 6 and 7 together (or better yet, the whole thing) 6 “I said, ‘You are “gods”; you are all sons of the Most High.’

7 But you will die like mere mortals; you will fall like every other ruler.”

So this section of Scripture is not calling everyone “gods” or “sons of gods,” it is a reference only to the leaders or “rulers” of God’s people (i.e. his church).

Your interpretation of John 10:33-36 suffers from the same fundamental misunderstanding of the context. Jesus quotes this Psalm when confronted by Jewish leaders who were accusing Him of blasphemy by calling Himself the Son of God. The Jewish leaders would have understood the context and the reference Jesus was making where the Old Testament referred to mere human beings as “gods.” His point in quoting the Psalm was this:  If the Old Testament referred to God’s earthly representatives - and mere human beings  - as “gods,” what was their reason for being angry at God’s true Son from heaven – the ultimate representative of God on earth to His people – calling Himself the Son of God?

So the context and the usage of the term at that time and place show the true meaning to these passages. Additionally, this meaning does not contradict or pervert clear passages of scripture on the subject. These passages do not say that every human being is a god and Sons of God. Scripture is abundantly clear that there is only one Son of God and that is Jesus Christ. John 3:16 says: “16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.”   Also there is John 1:18 which says: “18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and[b] is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known. See also Matthew 3:16 -17. There are numerous references I could site but these are sufficient. The reason for the capitalization of “Son” in “Son of God” is because of Jesus’ divine nature as God. Finally, Genesis 6:2,4 and Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7 does not speak about “Sons of God” with a capital “Son.”  They reference “sons of God” which is simply a reference to God’s believing children. Sadly, not everyone who hears the Scripture being preached believes (has faith) and therefore are God’s children. It takes more than hearing Scripture preached to be a child of God, it takes believing what it says. See Jesus discuss this in his telling of the parable of the sower in Matthew 13. In view of your comment above that “[you] don't want to be associated with the absurdities of the Bible.” I would strongly suggest you read it – all of it down to verse 23John637 (talk) 03:11, 17 October 2015 (UTC)