User talk:Supriyochowdhury

sub:wavefunction in quantum mechanics

we know that not all wave fanction are allowed wave fanction in quantum mechanics only those wave fanction that satisfy schrodinger equation and also they are wellbehaved.But if it is not wellbehaved then what difficultise arise?Supriyochowdhury (talk) 08:15, 27 February 2009 (UTC)


 * Hello. I noticed your question on the reference desk about studying QM in a PhD program, and that led me here.  I am currently finishing my first year at a university studying computational chemistry in a PhD program, directly from a bachelors degree.  Anyway, there are some good responses there, so I'll echo everyone there and say that it is obviously possible.  Feel free to leave a message at my talk page if you'd like more info.


 * As to the question posed here (in case you haven't received an answer): Since &Psi;*&Psi; is the probability of finding an electron, then it must be normalizable, that is the probability of finding the electron somewhere in the universe must be equal to one.  If &Psi; is not well behaved (say, it goes to infinity at a point) then that is not possible.  (I believe there may be other reasons, but that's the big one).  --Bennybp (talk) 02:43, 9 April 2009 (UTC)

Rikichowdhury
Are you the same user? You both have very similar names and write in very similar English. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 144.32.155.203 (talk) 18:46, 2 June 2009 (UTC)