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Marcocapelle, how one historical period can be part of political relation of modern countries Slovakia and Hungary in the 21st century? It is illogical claim. Do you have any reference which states that this part of history is part of current diplomatic relations of two countries? Also, in which way "Slovakia" was an geographical unit in the Kingdom of Hungary? There never existed province or geographical area with this name in the Kingdom of Hungary. There was perhaps some geographical unit named "Felvidek" which rougly refered to northern parts of the Kingdom of Hungary (which included modern Slovakia), but there was no "Slovakia". By this way of categorization you imply to the readers of wikipedia that there was some area named "Slovakia" in the Kingdom of Hungary, which is incorrect. Redbluelighting (talk) 08:18, 18 April 2015 (UTC)[reply]
@Redbluelighting: This is the exact same way as we categorize Category:Roman Serbia and Category:Prehistoric Hungary while Serbia and Hungary didn't exist yet at the time. The key question is, what is our current point of reference for historical-geographic categories? The answer is, our current point of reference is the contemporary polity or region if there was one, while if there wasn't any polity of region at the time our current point of reference is the current country by lack of any better alternative. That's also why I asked you before, do you know a better name for this category? If you do, I'd be happy to further discuss that. Marcocapelle (talk) 06:22, 21 April 2015 (UTC)[reply]
You are projecting back a modern polity into the distant past, quite anachronistically. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 81.182.48.75 (talk) 20:14, 2 February 2019 (UTC)[reply]
