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Could someone please fix and clarify this? I rewrote a small fragment which was unclear, from my knowledge of Hebrew and German, but I really do not understand the point of the section. AFAIK, Jews did not acquire surnames until about 1750; hence, how could Falk have had this name much earlier? 66.108.110.241 (talk) 04:42, 19 September 2008 (UTC) Allen Roth[reply]
The point is it's not a surname, it's the German version of his first name, just like Naftali Hirsh or Binyamin Wolf. -- Zsero (talk) 10:50, 19 September 2008 (UTC)[reply]
