Talk:Allative case

Another or better Ancient Greek Example?
The Mycenaean Greek allative in -de is compared to the ancient Greek form Ἀθήναζε, to Athens. I wonder if a better example would be Τροίανδε, to Troy (e.g. Il. 1.129) or Κρήτηνδε, to Crete (Od. 19.186), which preserves the -de ending without any sound change? I'm far from competent in Greek so I don't feel qualified to make a change myself. 158.48.133.1 (talk) —Preceding undated comment added 20:43, 26 December 2013 (UTC)

Allative as a generic case
I think it would be nice if the article was presented in a more generic tone. While Finnish is one of the best known languages which makes use of the allative, there are many other languages which use it (e.g. Georgian and Wardaman.) The way the article is written implies it is a charateristic of the Finnish language, rather than a linguistic concept which may or may not be present in any given language. I would like to re-write or add to the article myself, though I do not feel confident enough to accurately and concisely explain the concept, and cannot find sufficient examples. Tezp 11:30, 25 May 2007 (UTC)

Contradicts German Wiki
The G. Wiki says it complements the Ablative case, but here it complements the addessive??? 134.93.59.195 (talk) 19:41, 1 February 2009 (UTC)
 * Sometimes one word can have multiple "complements". See for example the world "girl", which can contrast with "boy" or with "woman". -Branddobbe (talk) 08:35, 13 May 2010 (UTC)

“-de” in Ancient Greek
Though I’m not expert, I think “-de” in Ancient Greek means illative, not allative case

For example, πόλεμόνδε is equivalent of “to battle” in English, of ”karan” in Lithuanian, and not “προς πολεμον”, but “εις πολεμον”. Yoshiciv (talk) 08:10, 27 October 2018 (UTC)

Latin
What about ‘domum’?
 * Plus, according to Accusative case the accusative functions more like a lative, which might make sense considering that it can be used both for ‘towards’ (allative) and for ‘into’ (illative).
 * And ‘rus’: