Talk:Epistle to Diognetus

Mathetes' Diognetus not tutor of M. Aurelius? Says who.
I've only seen evidence that it is thought that the recipient of this letter was the same Diognetus as the tutor of M. Aurelius. One example, Philip Schaff, "The Apostolic Fathers with Justin Martyr and Irenaeus", (see |http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.iii.i.html|http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.iii.i.html). I'm putting this up as a reference and removing the dissenting argument as there is no citation... as is the case for most of this article, as small as it is. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 99.22.228.93 (talk) 22:31, 9 February 2011 (UTC)


 * There is absolutely nothing connecting this letter with the tutor of Marcus Aurelius. It was a popular conjecture to make in the 1800s when people did things like that, and it is probably based on the fact that other early christian apologies are addressed to emperors/high-status individuals. It is not even possible to establish a date for the Epistle, because it lacks sufficient internal evidence to date and the manuscript tradition is poor (and now nonexistent).--WholeWheatIgnatius (talk) 08:49, 7 December 2011 (UTC)

Place of the Epistle in the Apostolic Fathers
¶ Although this Epistle is not included in the first English translation of the antology of early writings called the Apostolic Fathers (by Wm. Wake, circa 1693), it was subsequently included in several English translations of the Apostolic Fathers by the second half of the 19th century. I would very much appreciate some comments on how this addition to the collection occurred. Sussmanbern (talk) 00:25, 18 March 2016 (UTC)

Επιστολή προς Διόγνητον or Προς Διόγνητον Επιστολή?
Is the Greek title of this letter Προς Διόγνητον Επιστολή (as the Wikipedia article says) or Επιστολή προς Διόγνητον (as Lake says, see http://www.ccel.org/l/lake/fathers/diognetus.htm)?

No difference in meaning, of course. But are both titles used? Or is this a mistake? — Preceding unsigned comment added by Jonathan.robie (talk • contribs) 18:21, 15 May 2014 (UTC)


 * Both word orderings would be allowable by Greek grammar. Many works from ancient times didn't really have exact fixed "titles" in the modern sense... AnonMoos (talk) 07:27, 17 May 2014 (UTC)