Talk:Oculus Sacerdotis

"Late" middle ages?
It seems a bit strange to me to say that a book written in the early 14th century was used "until the late Middle Ages". The 14th century is already pretty far into the "late" Middle Ages itself. How much later is late? Fut.Perf. ☼ 22:34, 1 September 2009 (UTC)
 * No idea, the source just gives "late middle ages". "over two hundred years later" is given separately. Ironholds (talk) 22:36, 1 September 2009 (UTC)
 * Then I'd just stick with "two hundred years later", or, based on that, "up to the early 16th century". The phrase "up to the late Middle Ages", besides being ill-defined, also seems to imply a significantly longer than average life span of the book, but 200 years is hardly very long for a work of that age. Fut.Perf. ☼ 22:43, 1 September 2009 (UTC)
 * Done and done. Ironholds (talk) 22:48, 1 September 2009 (UTC)