Talk:XY sex-determination system

Article claims "People believed a claim", yet we cite just one philosopher with that claim
"Since ancient times, people have believed that the sex of an infant is determined by how much heat a man's sperm had during insemination. Aristotle wrote that:"

I don't believe there is a citation for the fact that people had this belief, at this point it constitutes original research. Greek philosophers had pretty whacky beliefs (sometimes correct, like the mighty democritus) that in no way represent the view of the populace.

I am doubting the claim that this was a widely held belief and suggest that we change the claim to: "Aristotle believed that:"

Does this seem reasonable? Thank you --TZubiri (talk) 08:21, 1 January 2019 (UTC)


 * Artistotle was one of the most influential philosophers of all time. He was the primary influence on Western philosophy and almost every other branch of knowledge for centuries to millennia. It's pretty reasonable to attribute his beliefs to the people at that time. Prinsgezinde (talk) 23:46, 12 June 2021 (UTC)
 * @ 5.122.90.117 (talk) 01:15, 2 April 2023 (UTC)

Wiki Education assignment: Developmental and Molecular Biology Spring 2024
— Assignment last updated by Mhurt2020 (talk) 18:27, 21 February 2024 (UTC)

Strange wording "in the absence of the Y chromosome, the fetus will undergo female development"
"In humans, the presence of the Y chromosome is responsible for triggering male development; in the absence of the Y chromosome, the fetus will undergo female development."

I am not an expert about this topic at all, but later in the article this seems contradicted..

"In humans and many other species of animals, the father determines the sex of the child. In the XY sex-determination system, the female-provided ovum contributes an X chromosome and the male-provided sperm contributes either an X chromosome or a Y chromosome, resulting in female (XX) or male (XY) offspring, respectively."

To say "in the absence of the Y chromosome" sounds as if saying "that if a father contributes neither an X nor a Y chromosome the fetus will undergo female development". What actually seems to be the case is..

"In humans, the presence of the Y chromosome is responsible for triggering male development; the presence of a second X chromosome is responsible for triggering female development." Ybllaw (talk) 10:30, 11 May 2024 (UTC)


 * See Turner syndrome, absence of a second sex chromosome. —Tamfang (talk) 02:11, 12 May 2024 (UTC)
 * This sentence still sounds false to me, "in the absence of the Y chromosome, the fetus will undergo female development." is thus not true, as the Turner syndrome page talks about developmental impairment as a symptom of it. Ybllaw (talk) 09:59, 13 May 2024 (UTC)
 * Maybe thus something like..
 * "In humans, the presence of the Y chromosome is responsible for triggering male development; the presence of a second X chromosome is responsible for triggering female development. In the absence of a Y chromosome the sex will always be female." Ybllaw (talk) 10:02, 13 May 2024 (UTC)
 * I suggest someone who understands this topic better would actually write something, as what I've written here doesn't sound right either to me. Ybllaw (talk) 11:18, 13 May 2024 (UTC)